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Old Thu May 13, 2004, 10:30am
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I saw this recently in a MLB game. Can't remember who it was but it brought up a scorekeeping question. Score was tied in bottom of last inning when with a runner on base the batter hit a home run with a final score of 8-6.

Situation: Tie game in bottom of the last inning. Lets just say runners on 1st and 2nd. Batter hits a home run. As long as the BR touches 1st and the lead runner touches bases in order including home for the winning run, how should the score reflect this? Or is the batter obligated to run all bases?

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Old Thu May 13, 2004, 11:02am
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Unless things have changed recently, the batter gets credit only for the bases he runs. So if he stopped at 1B, he would be credited with a single. Or if he passed a runner, which has happened more than once in the Majors, he would be credited only for the bases he touched before he was out.

I once saw Hector Lopez of the Yankees get credit for a single instead of a double when he stopped at 1B after bouncing a game-winning hit into the stands.

I'm not sure how they would score it if the winning run scored but the batter didn't even go to 1B. I guess if the defense appealed 1B, the batter would not even get credit for the hit, but he would of course get the RBI. But since the game would be over, the defense might not even bother with the appeal. I don't know. Give him a single?
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Old Thu May 13, 2004, 11:07am
Gee Gee is offline
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Situation: Tie game in bottom of the last inning. Lets just say runners on 1st and 2nd. Batter hits a home run. As long as the BR touches 1st and the lead runner touches bases in order including home for the winning run, how should the score reflect this? Or is the batter obligated to run all bases?
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All that HAS to be done in this situation, with less than two outs is that R2 touch third and home and the B/R touch first base. Home team wins by one.

With two outs same thing with R2 and B/R but R1 would have to touch second or he could be appealed and if sucessful would be the third out ending the inning tied. G.
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Old Thu May 13, 2004, 04:45pm
DG DG is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by greymule
Unless things have changed recently, the batter gets credit only for the bases he runs. So if he stopped at 1B, he would be credited with a single. Or if he passed a runner, which has happened more than once in the Majors, he would be credited only for the bases he touched before he was out.

I once saw Hector Lopez of the Yankees get credit for a single instead of a double when he stopped at 1B after bouncing a game-winning hit into the stands.

I'm not sure how they would score it if the winning run scored but the batter didn't even go to 1B. I guess if the defense appealed 1B, the batter would not even get credit for the hit, but he would of course get the RBI. But since the game would be over, the defense might not even bother with the appeal. I don't know. Give him a single?
If the BR does not touch 1B, and defense appeals, then the last out was a force at 1B and no runs score. 7.02, 7.05a. No RBI, no hit, no runs. Count the AB as a really bad AB.
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