Rule 8-4-1g

[Rich]

Originally posted by scyguy
so if I am wrong, what determines interference? Intent? Correct me if I am wrong but if batter-runner is running up the line, within 45 feet of 1st and his body is inside the foul line and a throw from catcher either hits him or catcher's throw is over the head of batter-runner and this leads to hindering the 1st baseman, then we have interference, whether intentional or not. How does this differ from my original post??

How is the throw in your play a quality throw that has a chance to retire the runner? This is a criterion for ANY running lane interference call.

Regardless, historically, the running lane has only applied on throws coming from the box formed by the intersection of the lines at the 45 foot mark between home and first and home and third.

No educated baseball person expects the umpire to bail out the defense -- why would you be looking to.