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Wed Apr 21, 2004, 07:27am
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The dead ball chart in the FED rule book awards a baserunner 1 base for being hit by a pitch. Can anyone give me a situation where this would REALLY happen?
The only thing I can imagine is if a runner is stealing home and crosses the plate just as the ball does. Would that constitute interference on the baserunner? Would the ump call a ball or strike? Is the ball then dead? How about catcher obstruction? Any other situations where a runner could be struck by a pitch??? 
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Wed Apr 21, 2004, 09:42am
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The case you mention is the one that came to mind immediately. Without getting out my rulebook I would imagine that the runner is awarded home, and the batter has a ball or strike called on him, depending on what it was, and the ball is dead so no other runners can advance I also imagine it was most likely a ball, because I can not imagine a runner going in standing up, with a batter in place to swing. At the higher levels the pitcher may also realize the runner is stealing and throw an inside right handed batter) to give the catcher a good chance at the tag. He may even throw so far inside that he hits the runner, before he reaches the plate. This is another one of those situations that I have never seen.
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Wed Apr 21, 2004, 12:35pm
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So if the pitch is coming in, and it is right down the middle, so it will be a strike. But the runner slides and hits the pitch before it enters the strike zone. This would be a ball correct? Because the ball never entered the strike zone when it was live.
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Wed Apr 21, 2004, 03:06pm
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Quote:
Sounds like we've got neither a strike nor a ball if the pitch doesn't reach the plate.
__________________
"Not all heroes have time to pose for sculptors...some still have papers to grade."
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