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Old Thu Apr 08, 2004, 12:18pm
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Question

In a JV game I saw last year this team my son played against, did this at a crucial point in the game as we were one run down and the leadoff batter got on base to 1B. Their F3 appeared to have moved to a spot in between our runner and 1B after the pitch, and by that I mean before the catcher received the ball, he moved from his pickoff position to 1B right after the release, or so it appeared(as it all happens pretty quick). He positioned his feet and body to a point where getting back to the bag was almost impossible, then the pitch was almost like a pitch-out but not quite, a fastball outside corner, the catcher receives the ball and in a way that told me this was a predetermined play, as without hesitation he threw to F3, and our runner ran into him trying to get back to the bag and was an easy tagout. My question is,is it even possible that this could be called for obstruction of the baserunner? I thought you could be there, but there had to be a play on the runner, and if he goes there before the catcher receives the ball there is no play. Thanks!

[Edited by JRSooner on Apr 8th, 2004 at 01:21 PM]
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Old Thu Apr 08, 2004, 01:03pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by JRSooner
In a JV game I saw last year this team my son played against, did this at a crucial point in the game as we were one run down and the leadoff batter got on base to 1B. Their F3 appeared to have moved to a spot in between our runner and 1B after the pitch, and by that I mean before the catcher received the ball, he moved from his pickoff position to 1B right after the release, or so it appeared(as it all happens pretty quick). He positioned his feet and body to a point where getting back to the bag was almost impossible, then the pitch was almost like a pitch-out but not quite, a fastball outside corner, the catcher receives the ball and in a way that told me this was a predetermined play, as without hesitation he threw to F3, and our runner ran into him trying to get back to the bag and was an easy tagout. My question is,is it even possible that this could be called for obstruction of the baserunner? I thought you could be there, but there had to be a play on the runner, and if he goes there before the catcher receives the ball there is no play. Thanks!

[Edited by JRSooner on Apr 8th, 2004 at 01:21 PM]
The runner isn't obstructed until he's obstructed -- F3 can stand between R1 and first -- if R1 isn't trying to get back to the bag, then it's nothing.

Once the throw is in the air (on this play), F3's position is legal.
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Old Thu Apr 08, 2004, 10:26pm
DG DG is offline
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I know, you had to be there. But from the description it sounds like the runner was trying to return to 1B but could not, becuase the 1B man was in his way. Sounds like obstruction to me, as described.
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