Backcourt (test) question

[Clark Kent]

One of the questions on the test in the "Backcourt/Frontcourt" section asks the following question......

"A ball that is in contact with two players is in the backcourt if either player is touching the backcourt."

The correct answer is true with reference cited in 4-4-1 for anyone who objects.

From what I understand of this statement (and the citation in the book) is that once frontcourt status has been established no one (including the defense) can touch the backcourt and the ball without there being a violation.

Would it thus be a violation if after establishing frontcourt status a defensive player (perhaps in a high trap just across the halfcourt line) touches the ball while a foot is in the backcourt?

I would assume so, however it seems unfair that the defense would have such an advantage.

Thoughts? Comments?