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Clark Kent Tue Oct 26, 2010 04:51pm

Backcourt (test) question
 
One of the questions on the test in the "Backcourt/Frontcourt" section asks the following question......

"A ball that is in contact with two players is in the backcourt if either player is touching the backcourt."

The correct answer is true with reference cited in 4-4-1 for anyone who objects. ;)

From what I understand of this statement (and the citation in the book) is that once frontcourt status has been established no one (including the defense) can touch the backcourt and the ball without there being a violation.

Would it thus be a violation if after establishing frontcourt status a defensive player (perhaps in a high trap just across the halfcourt line) touches the ball while a foot is in the backcourt?

I would assume so, however it seems unfair that the defense would have such an advantage.

Thoughts? Comments?

Adam Tue Oct 26, 2010 04:58pm

Read the requirements for a violation. Hint, the defense can never cause an offensive violation merely by touching the ball.

Rule 9-9.

Clark Kent Tue Oct 26, 2010 05:01pm

Thanks Snaq.....I love the insight, but then wouldn't that make the question false or in need of an exception such as "Unless one of them is a defensive player"?

Adam Tue Oct 26, 2010 05:09pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Clark Kent (Post 698186)
Thanks Snaq.....I love the insight, but then wouldn't that make the question false or in need of an exception such as "Unless one of them is a defensive player"?

You're reading too much into it, but not really.
The thing is, in order for a violation, the offense must be the first to touch the ball after it gained BC status. That's not possible if the defense is touching the ball.

Clark Kent Tue Oct 26, 2010 05:10pm

Gotcha.....makes sense....Thanks

Adam Tue Oct 26, 2010 05:11pm

Sitch:
A1 with the ball in FC near division line. B1, standing with one foot in the BC, reaches and touches the ball but does not create a held ball situation.

Ruling: Official is to begin a 10 second BC count, terminating either when the defense steps into the FC, the defense lets go, or the defense gains possession.

Clark Kent Tue Oct 26, 2010 05:23pm

lol....is that in the casebook? I assume in 4.1 somewhere.

What would be the purpose of having a bc count? I understand that technically it has bc status so the closely guarded count isn't in affect, but wouldn't you call a held ball long before you got anywhere close to ten?

Adam Tue Oct 26, 2010 05:27pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Clark Kent (Post 698197)
lol....is that in the casebook? I assume in 4.1 somewhere.

What would be the purpose of having a bc count? I understand that technically it has bc status so the closely guarded count isn't in affect, but wouldn't you call a held ball long before you got anywhere close to ten?

I doubt if it's a case play; the point was to show the rule and how it applies to possession, ball location, etc.

As for in practice, yes, most likely I'd have a held ball long before getting to 10 seconds. I can't even imagine starting an arm swing here, as balls are either held or moved too quickly.

That said, if the defense is merely putting his hand on it, and the offense isn't doing anything to move, it's not really a held ball by rule. 4-25-1

Jurassic Referee Tue Oct 26, 2010 05:48pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Clark Kent (Post 698180)
One of the questions on the test in the "Backcourt/Frontcourt" section asks the following question......

"A ball that is in contact with two players is in the backcourt if either player is touching the backcourt."

The correct answer is true with reference cited in 4-4-1 for anyone who objects. ;)

1) From what I understand of this statement (and the citation in the book) is that once frontcourt status has been established no one (including the defense) can touch the backcourt and the ball without there being a violation.

2) Would it thus be a violation if after establishing frontcourt status a defensive player (perhaps in a high trap just across the halfcourt line) touches the ball while a foot is in the backcourt?

1) That premise is wrong. There is no violation listed anywhere in the rules for a defender merely touching a ball held by an opponent unless that defender is out of bounds when he touches it.

2) To have a violation, the defensive player has to turn into an offensive player who has established team control in their frontcourt. And to do that, the defender would have had to establish player control, which is holding or dribbling the ball. That didn't happen, did it?

Read NFHS 9-9-1. The defensive player never established team control in their frontcourt so there's no way they can ever commit a backcourt violation. And ask yourself who was the first player with backcourt status to touch the ball after it had been in team control in the frontcourt. Hint...it wasn't the offensive player holding onto the ball.

BktBallRef Tue Oct 26, 2010 07:40pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Clark Kent (Post 698180)
"A ball that is in contact with two players is in the backcourt if either player is touching the backcourt."

The statement is true.

It has nothing to do with BC violations or a held ball.

The purpose of the statement is to determine if you understand the rules concerning player and ball location, nothing more.


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