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Old Tue Aug 19, 2003, 11:07am
Bob M. Bob M. is offline
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Join Date: Jun 2001
Location: Clinton Township, NJ
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Re: My 2 cents

Quote:
Originally posted by KWH

If the rationale was as you say: Since R fouled prior to gaining possession, then we could NEVER enforce PSK since Since R is NEVER in possession of the ball because all PSK fouls can only occur during a kick and once R gains possession the kick ends.


[Edited by KWH on Aug 19th, 2003 at 03:46 AM]

REPLY: I agree with everything you said except the above statement. My statement was made in the context of a situation where both teams fouled during the down. Clearly, if only R fouls, then PSK may come into play. But in the original play (where both teams foul), according the the rules and according to what was said in Indianapolis, this is a double foul because R's foul was prior to them gaining final possession. This is exactly in line with NF 10-2-1 and 10-2-2 as currently written and is a known difference between NF and NCAA rules.

Does it make sense? I agree with you--NO it doesn't.
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