Wed Aug 13, 2003, 09:57pm
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In Memoriam
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Join Date: Nov 1999
Location: Houghton, U.P., Michigan
Posts: 9,953
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Quote:
Originally posted by Warren Willson
If R1 was not all the way back to 1st when the ball went dead, would he need to stop, go back, and touch 2nd BEFORE he touched 1st or would he still be vulnerable to an appeal after touching 1st without correcting his miss of 2nd even if he later touched 2nd base while accepting his 2-base award on the overthrown ball?
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If R1 does not specifically touch 2b on his way back to first he has violated and may be out by appeal as long as it is the first appeal on R1 at 2b. 
mick
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