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i have always read that the first baseman has to be within range to make a play on the runner retreating to the base the ball was thrown to. i didnt see this play so i am guessing the F3 was playing behind the runner as if there was no one on, but then again i dont know so here goes.
many of you know that Mo Vaughn never actually "holds" a runner on but does make plays on runners going back into 1st base. he is usually 2-3 feet in front of the bag but they dont call it a balk because he is close enough to swipe the runner. if the pitcher were to throw to a base with no runner there, except to make a play, it would then be a balk by OBR rule 8.05(d). when that rule says "throws to an unoccupied base," what does that mean as far as the fielder? is my way of thinking that if hes close enough(ie. Mo Vaughn) its occupied correct?
i'll have to look on espn and see if i can catch that play.
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