Quote:
Originally Posted by umpjim
Thus why I said "I think". Some have simplified that 3B is the new 1B. So would F1 have to throw to 3B as he would to 1B, in one case throwing ahead of an advancing runner and in the other behind.
|
To be accurate, you said "I don't think". My excerpts from the rules makes me think he can throw or feint to unoccupied 3b for purpose of making a play or driving back a runner, who logically, would be advancing from 2b, not at 3b already.