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Out of play question - runner "earned" base before touching
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Fri May 29, 2015, 03:45pm
CecilOne
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Quote:
Originally Posted by
AtlUmpSteve
Ina an effort to find some reasonable explanation for the ruling, the strange wording this umpire used could have
POSSIBLY
been a poorly worded attempt to state that the runner had passed the base at the time of the throw despite the OP wording of "had not
touched
2nd".
IF
that were the case, he would be correct in awarding home (although the runner is still subject to an appeal for missing the base if the runner did not return to touch), since runners are awarded bases based on their actual position irrespective of bases actually touched.
Are you now 10 feet tall after that stretch?
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