Quote:
Originally posted by rex
Sorry I don't get it. C says a pitcher doesn't have to make the throw after taking the step. I just don't see anything about not moving the hands/arms/shoulders.
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Steve,
I think you're getting yourself confused here. I'm not Carl, but please allow me to try to step through it for you (no pun intended - grin):
1. OBR 8.05(c) says a step toward the base is required ahead of a throw. It does NOT say such a step is required ahead of a feint.
2. Some umpires have used point 1 above to suggest that the pitcher may therefore legally feint a throw to a base other than 1st without stepping to the base first. This is despite the wording of OBR 8.01 that
requires one of a pitch, a step (and throw), or a legal disengagement of the rubber after assuming either of the two legal pitching positions. Anything else is a balk with runners on base.
3. FED cured this misconception by writing in a specific provision that required a step ahead of a feint.
4. OBR recently cured this misconception by an NAPBL/PBUC interpretation that said a step WAS required to precede a feint as well as a throw.
Carl was simply pointing out that FED and OBR now agree in their application on this principle; a feint to throw must be preceded by a legal step to the base.
This was part of the earlier argument that if a feint to throw also requires both a step to the base AND a positive separation of the hands, that it is clearly impossible to achieve all three (step, hand separation, and feint) without SOME arm movement also occurring.
Cheers.
[Edited by Warren Willson on Dec 29th, 2000 at 12:26 AM]