[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

4.19.6 SITUATION A: B1 obtains a legal position in A1’s path before A1
becomes airborne. A1 jumps and releases the ball on a try for goal. Before returning
to the floor, airborne shooter A1 charges into B1. (a) Before the foul by A1,
B2 commits basket interference; or (b) after the foul on A1, B2 slaps the ball on
its downward flight. RULING: In (a), both the violation and the foul are penalized.
The basket interference by B2 causes the ball to become dead immediately. The
violation is penalized by awarding the two points. The player-control foul on A1 is
also charged. Team B is awarded the ball for a throw-in anywhere along the end
line. A defensive-goaltending or basket-interference violation committed prior to a
player-control foul does not contradict the general statement that when a player control
foul occurs that player cannot score. In the case of a defensive violation, it
is the violation which results in awarding the score. In (b), the ball becomes dead
and the try ends immediately when the player-control foul on A1 occurs. The
action of B2 is ignored as goaltending cannot occur after the try has ended. The
ball is awarded to Team B for a throw-in from a designated spot out of bounds
closest to where the foul occurred. (4-12-1; 6-7-4; 6-7-9 Exception; 7-5-4a; 9-11)

If the defensive basket interference, before the foul, "causes the ball to became dead immediately", then how can one charge the player control foul? I thought that fouls during a dead ball must be intentional, or flagrant, to be charged (as technical fouls)?

What am I missing here, besides common sense?