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It sounds as if it has been determined that the player began as a shooter and then when the ball was stripped (and it was clear it wasn't going in the hoop) the player became a non-shooter.
Given that, it would be a common foul.
Now, same scenario however ball is hit out of shooter's hand but still goes towards the hoop (meaning it has a chance to go in the hoop). Does that make our player an airborne shooter still when he gets his legs clipped and thus 2 FT's would be awarded if the ball does not enter the hoop?
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