[Warren Willson]

Originally posted by Lonewolf986
Im sorry for this remedial question, but can you answer this please...?

When you say "Batter is out, first is occupied" on a Dropped third strike. What is the meaning of "occupied."

Does the runner on first have to be occupying 2nd by the time the ball is dropped? what "determines" the "occupied"

I know im making this harder than it is, but any help would be appreciated.

John

Hey, Lonewolf986, the only dumb question is the one you always wanted to ask but didn't! *grin* I'll give a tad more background than Garth, but that's me!

Your answer comes from OBR 7.01, which says:

A runner acquires the right to an unoccupied base when the runner touches it before being put out. The runner is then entitled to it until put out, or forced to vacate it for another runner legally entitled to that base.

So you see that even if a runner is NOT physically touching a base that he has previously acquired, he is still legally occupying that base until

1. he is put out, or
2. he is forced to advance, or
3. he legally acquires another base (no runner can legally occupy two bases)

You need that background to make sense of OBR 6.05(c) and OBR 6.09(b) the latter of which says (in part):

The batter becomes a runner when -
(b)The third strike called by the umpire is not caught, providing;
1. first base is unoccupied, or
2. first base is occupied with two out;

Bottom Line: If the base was the last base legally acquired by a runner at the commencement of the subject play, then that base was legally occupied unless

1. the batter subsequently became a runner and so forced the occupant to vacate the base for another runner legally entitled to it, or
2. the runner somehow legally acquired a new base BEFORE the pitch was delivered to the batter

OBR 6.05(c) says the the batter is OUT when he does NOT become a runner on such plays.

Hope this helps.

Cheers