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Old Mon Nov 10, 2014, 03:02pm
jeremy341a jeremy341a is offline
Often wrong never n doubt
 
Join Date: Sep 2012
Posts: 737
Quote:
Originally Posted by HokiePaul View Post
Possibly because of the definition of Flagrant and Intentional fouls. The rule book leaves it up to interpretation, but to me, this play meets two of the criteria for a intentional foul almost perfectly and doesn't fit the criteria for a flagrant.

Intentional foul:
a) Contact that neutralizes an opponent's obvious advantage (yes)
b) Contact away from the ball ...(N/A)
c) Contact that is not a legitimate attempt to play the ball ... (yes)
d) Excessive contact with an opponent while playing the ball (N/A or yes)
e) Contact with a thrower-in (N/A)

Flagrant Foul:
*violent or savage in nature (I'm leaning no, but it's debatable)
*violent contact such as: striking, kicking and kneeing (no)
*fighting (no)

Not saying that this couldn't be a flagrant ... a lot of officials here think so. But I have a hard time thinking an evaluator is going to downgrade the officials for only calling this an intentional foul as you suggest.
I am in the flagrant camp but I totally agree that I think that this could be argued either way.
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