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Originally Posted by UMP45
Manny how could you call this ball foul?
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From Jaksa/Roder:
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It is interference by a runner (batter-runner included) if:
(3) such runner hinders a protected fielder during a fair or catchable batted ball. (7.08b) (7.09j).
Examples: Runner/Protected Fielder Contact, Not Interference
1---- The batter chops a ball along the first base line in foul territory. The pitcher is reaching for it, but cannot touch it because of contact by the batter-runner. The ball, untouched, rolls foul: no interference, foul ball.
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So here is one reference from J/R that clearly mentions that 7.08(b) and 7.09(j) apply to a "fair or catchable batted ball." To them, the only time you can possibly have interference when the ball is in foul territory is if the ball is in the air because a play can be made on it--catching it for an out.
What I don't like about their position is that since there is no interference possible on a ball in foul territory, the play remains live and the final determination is made once the ball ends up fair or foul. If it were "incidental contact", I might agree with them. But here, the runner did something intentional, and I don't feel he should benefit from his action. I suppose in those rule sets that recognize the concept of "malicious contact" you can rule that's what happened in the OP.
But suppose the contact is intentional but not enough to warrant being labeled malicious if the BR has no intent to hurt the fielder. Then you're left with what I feel is a reasonable compromise to J/R's interp, and that's to go ahead and kill it and rule foul.
What's ironic is that in all softball codes that I'm familiar with--NCAA, ASA, and NFHS--that's exactly what they call for. For example, the NCAA Softball book says a ball is foul when:
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1.51.7 Is in foul territory when a base runner in foul territory interferes with a defensive player’s attempt to field a batted ball.
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Why we can only find that in softball and not baseball is a mystery.