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I know there's a case play about a batter heading to first base on ball three, instead of ball four. It's 3.6.13(B).
And it's a rather Draconian case play. It says that if the umpire judges this to be an intentional act (mind reader?) he can eject the player!
I've wondered if this same ruling could apply when a batter runs on an uncaught strike two. Wouldn't that be the same thing? Both involve a batter running to first base, mimicking a batter-runner, when not entitled to, apparently to gain some sort of advantage over the defense.
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