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Old Wed Mar 26, 2014, 01:27pm
Manny A Manny A is offline
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Join Date: Aug 2000
Location: Lowcountry, SC
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Dakota View Post
This is a pretty minor complaint, but it does require a bit of word parsing since there can be a difference between what the rule says "a runner is able to advance" v. the question wording of “allows a runner to advance”. My answer: T
Well, technically, the rule itself is problematic. A runner may be "able to advance" when the pitch gets by the catcher. But if she ends up not doing so for whatever reason (she didn't see the ball get away, she slips, she is told to stay because the game is a blowout, etc.), then it shouldn't be ruled a passed ball. If the question were asked as the rule is actually written, you could justify a False answer.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dakota View Post
I can find no rule support for either answer to this question, so the fall back is common sense and if it is not illegal, it must be legal. My answer: T (Maybe someone here can point out where I overlooked this in the rules book.)
The definition of on-deck batter under 2-5-3 says she may leave the circle to "avoid interfering with a defensive player's opportunity to make an out." Since the catcher is a defensive player...

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dakota View Post
The technically correct answer is false, since there are too many exceptions not noted in the question. What if the fielder is the pitcher? What if the runner could have obviously avoided being hit? Anyway, my answer is T. Very poor question, though.
Agree. I would answer False (and probably be wrong) only from the perspective that it doesn't mention anything about her inability to avoid the ball. As to your other question about the pitcher, a "fielder" includes the pitcher when it comes to deflected batted balls.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dakota View Post
This question is egregiously bad. As the umpire taking the test, you are left to try to decide if the question author is trying to trick you or is just sloppy. Since this is the NFHS, either could be the explanation, given their history of intentionally (IMO) putting trick questions in the test to limit the number of perfect scores (again, JMO). In the situation described, B1 runs the risk be having a strike called for “failure to be ready” … “while out of position”. There is no penalty for merely BEING out of position. My answer, T, going with clueless/sloppy rather than devious on the part of the question writer.
I honestly don't see a problem with the question. It is almost verbatim with what is written in rule 7-3-1 PENALTY: "If a pitcher has brought the hands together, the batter leaves the box at risk of having a strike called while being out of position." My contention is the wording of the rule itself is egregiously bad. It would be better, IMHO, if it was written exactly like the test question.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dakota View Post
Like question 41, technically false since being on or over fair territory does not fully describe the conditions for when the batter would be out. So, “batter IS out”? No, not always. Could be out? Yes. My answer: T (Going with the answer I assume the test key would have in it.)
I would have answered True as well, since that's what the rule states. The Exception listed after the rule is a case where the ball actually hits the bat (as described in the case book play). I can't think of a situation where the bat hits the fair ball (versus the fair ball hits the bat) a second time and an out wouldn't be ruled.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dakota View Post
This is NOT the way the rule is written. This is a very sloppy question, especially considering the number of people who already have trouble with this rule. In the “Hints” for Umpires in 12-3-1, the NFHS rule book does say, This statement clearly makes a distinction between the FLEX being substituted for and the DP playing defense for the FLEX (note: “In either case…”). This very well may be an intentional trick question, given the emphasis on DP/FLEX understanding by the NFHS, but, taking a risk, I still went with a sloppy/clueless rule author and answered T.
Well, technically, when the FLEX comes in to bat for the DP, it is a substitution, by rule, since it has to be reported and it removes the DP from the lineup. So while I agree that the question is a little loose with its wording, I think the intent is clear, and I would answer True.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dakota View Post
Is there a difference between “visible” and “exposed”? Do dark undergarments completely beneath a white uniform (and hence not “exposed”, but still “visible”) fall under the rule, which states only “exposed”? Another possible intentional trick question, especially given the brouhaha a decade or so ago at an Illinois HS State Track & Field championship where the winner was DQed after the loser filed a protest because the girl's black bra was visible beneath her white jersey and did not match the rest of the team’s uniforms. But, I did answer T, again assuming sloppy question writing.
Well, FED 3-2-3 does list "visible undergarments" as part of the school's official uniform. And FED 3-2-7 says "exposed undergarments" are also part of the school uniform. So whether or not there is a distinction is immaterial. Both are considered part of the uniform.

BTW, the only restriction on "visible undergarments" by 3-2-3 is the size of the logo. So if a girl wears a red tee shirt with a huge black Nike Swoosh under her white jersey, she is noncompliant. But if that red tee shirt didn't have a Swoosh, and her school colors didn't have red, then I don't think she violates 3-2-7 if the shirt isn't exposed. IOW, I feel there is a distinction between "visible" and "exposed".

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dakota View Post
What? Are we now flat-out copying questions from the baseball test??? I answered T anyway, assuming they really meant plate umpire.
FED would not be alone. I took the NCAA Softball test, and there's a question in there about the catcher leaving her position behind the plate without requesting time to go to the mound to talk to the pitcher. Geez...

Quote:
Originally Posted by Dakota View Post
Technically false, since the correct wording would be “unless the offending team is behind AND the game is official” (i.e. met the requirements for an official game in terms of innings played, etc.) Continuing with my assumption of sloppy question writing, though, I answered T.
And I would have answered False for the exact reason you mentioned.
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