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When I read "A pass intentionally thrown incomplete to save loss of yardage or to conserve time," I understand it to mean that the QB throws the ball in a manner that it can't be completed. For example, he sails it across the sideline into the fifth row. In Mike's original play, I envisioned the QB just throwing it up for grabs in a manner such that if A32 was looking for the ball, he would have had a reasonable chance to catch it. I believed that Mike's question was more to determine whether A32's awareness of the pass was a factor in determining whether or not a foul should be called. I contend it's not. A32 being in the area is enough to keep this pass legal. If A32 is near the pass, you cannot say that the QB intentionally threw the ball incomplete. Did the QB throw the ball in order to avoid a loss of yardage and a safety? Sure he did...but he did it legally since it was thrown into an area occupied by an eligible receiver. If A32 was facing the oncoming pass and it fell at his feet, would you throw a flag?
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Bob M.
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