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Old Tue Jun 24, 2003, 02:06am
IHSAIllini IHSAIllini is offline
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Join Date: Jun 2003
Posts: 54
WMB brings up an intersting question, one that I've had several times in clinics during the past season and my kids have never been able to come up with a solid case for either way.

My feeling has always been that B/R 1 needs to vacate the area or it's an interference call, so long as it meets the definition for interference. Is this correct, and if the citation isn't the interference definition, someone throw it up...France, again.
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Steve Ryan
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