The thought of an incomplete pass came to our minds too, but since the initial pass was backwards and there was no catch or possession by A2, isn't this simply a continuation of the backwards pass, and treated as a fumble?
Believe me I understand this doesn't fall under the definition of batting, which I think could be reworded to include this type of play. Is this just a loophole in the rules? What would keep a team from throwing the ball to the sideline in this manner to gain yardage repeatedly? (Assuming that it is not an incomplete forward pass)
I'm to the point now where I don't really care what the answer is, I would just like to be able to see it for myself!
