Quote:
Originally posted by Buckeye12
I was reading through OBR today and was confused by the last few sentences of this rule (8.05). I was wondering if someone could possibly provide me with a better understanding of this phrase or direct me to an interpretation somewhere.
I read this as a right handed pitcher in the set position picks up his non-pivot foot (left foot) and makes an outside turn towards first base, does not hesitate towards first, and throws to an unoccupied second base and this is not to be ruled a balk. Is this correct?
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Second base is unoccupied? And R1 (if any) is not adancing? Then it's a balk.
THe wording was added so that this same move to second, with R2, would not be a balk for "feintign a throw to first" -- that is, even though the first move was in the direction fo first, it wasn't a move *to* first, so it's legal.