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Old Mon Sep 09, 2013, 02:43pm
lawump lawump is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bluehair View Post
Hmmm...though the definition (in 2.00) includes all plays (or doesn't exclude any), you (and J/R) are limiting interference using 7.09(j). 7.09(j) specifies "attempting to field a batted ball". Clearly that is not what we have here, so you can't use 7.09(j). The OP is covered in 7.08(b)...A runner is out when...hinders a fielder attempting to make a play on a batted ball.. To exclude this play would mean that you end protecting F6 after he has secured the ball. I don't think 7.08(b) excludes this play.

I know that interpreting the rule maker's intent is a dangerous undertaking, but what would have be the call if the collision in the OP resulted in F6 falling/dropping the ball, no out. Do you think the rules makers would have intented to exclude that from being an out? I don't. F6 was making a smart play on a batted ball.
If you read the official interpretations it is clearly implied (if not stated) that the requirements for the second part of Rule 7.08(b) ("...hinders a fielder attempting to make a play on a batted ball...") are the same as Rule 7.09(j). That is, defining when a batter is "mak(ing) a play on a batted ball" per Rule 7.08(b) is the same exact thing as defining when "a fielder...is attempting to field a batted ball" per Rule 7.09(j).

J/R and JEA and a bunch other sources all make clear that the rule book is poorly drafted and has inconsistencies and/or restatements of the same rule in different sections of the rule book. If one reads the official interpretations (PBUC, MLBUM) and unofficial interpretations (JEA, J/R) there is absolutely no support in any of those sources for the argument that Rule 7.08(b) grants more protection to a fielder that Rule 7.09(j).

Rather, when one reads the interpretations one can only come to the conclusion that the correct reading of these rules in conjunction with one another is that there is a difference between interference (1) when the fielder is a "protected fielder" fielding a "batted ball" (does NOT require an intentional act on the part of the runner in order to be interference) and (2) when the fielder is in possession of the baseball but is NOT a "protected fielder" because he is NOT "fielding a batted ball" (does require an intentional act (but not necessarily contact)) in order to interfere.

In the video, the fielder is not a "protected fielder". The runner did NOT commit an intentional act. Hence, it is not interference.

To answer your hypothetical at the end of your post, I would say, "That's nothing! That's nothing!" while giving the safe mechanic.

We see runners "take out" fielders all the time in pro baseball when the fielder is "attempting to make a play" (i.e. throw to another fielder) but that alone does not constitute interference.
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