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This is not interference under OBR (I can't speak for LL OBR modifications since I don't umpire LL).
From J/R: "It is interference by a runner...if: such runner hinders a protected fielder during a fair or catchable batted ball...A fielder is protected if he is trying to field a batted ball, and he is given priority to field it, and he is not chasing a deflected or missed fielding try...
"A fielder is 'trying to field' (or "in the act of fielding") a ball when (i) he is positioning himself for the purpose of trying to glove a rapidly approaching ball, or (ii)he is actually gloving the ball, or has gloved the ball and, without having to take steps, is trying to gain possession of the ball, or (iii) he is actually throwing the ball, or completing his throwing motion after throwing the ball ("following through")"
First, let me say that the fielder in the posted video is no longer "in the act of fielding" a batted ball at the time of the alleged interference. Clearly when there is contact the fielder is not positioning himself for the purpose of trying to glove a rapidly approaching ball, he is not "gloving" (actually fielding) a batted ball and he is not throwing the ball after having fielded the ball. In fact, F6 elects NOT to throw the ball after having fielded it and elects, rather, to first pull the ball (and throwing arm) back down by his side AND run at R3. In fact, F6 takes multiple steps toward R3 before any contact occurs. In no sense of the OBR can it be argued that F6 is still a "protected fielder" fielding a batted ball. The period of time in this play in which F6 was a "protected fielder" in the act of fielding a batted ball has come to an end long before the collision occurs.
Now, because the fielder is not in the act of fielding a batted ball, in order for R2 to interfere under OBR, he must do some intentional act. For example, if while running into F6 he intentionally swiped at F6 (i.e. like A-ROD in the playoffs a few years back against the Red Sox) then we would have interference. I have watched the video over and over and R2 did not commit an intentional act.
J/R gives the following example: "The second baseman gains possession of a ground ball and turns to try a tag of R1, who crashes into him, jarring the ball loose: not interference because it is a tag try, and the fielder is no longer trying to field."
I know that in this video there is no tag try at the time of the collision, but the concept is the same as the J/R example. F6 is "chasing after" R3 at the time of the collision. He "is no longer trying to field," the ball...just like the second baseman in the J/R example was "no longer trying to field," the ball. F6 has fielded the ball and has elected that other than immediately coming up and throwing the ball to another defensive player in an attempt to secure an out he would rather chase after a runner. When he is chasing after a runner, he is no longer in the act of fielding a batted ball (he is no longer a "protected fielder".) Thus, R2 must commit an intentional act in order to interfere. He did not commit an intentional act. Hence, no interference.
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