Quote:
Originally Posted by umpjim
From the MLBUM and PBUC:
"Bases loaded, two out, score tied in the bottom of the ninth inning. Batter hits a home run out of the ballpark. Runner on first, thinking the home run wins the game, leaves the baseline and heads toward the dugout. The runner at first is declared out before the runner from third reaches home plate. Other runners continue around the bases and eventually touch home.
Ruling: No runs score; the third out was made before the runner from third touched homeplate. Game continues in the top of the tenth inning with the score still tied."
So end result the same in the OP, but, if you call abandonment on R1 and PU has R3 scoring before the out call the run should score. Except, can you still accept an appeal at 2B for a force out?
Wendelstedt does not like the PBUC and MLBUM interps.
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I have to question the wording of the ruling here. Why would they allude that this is a timing play? This, to me, is clearly an example of a forced runner being declared out before he reaches his forced-to base. It shouldn't matter if the out was made by virtue of an actual play, an appeal, or an abandonment call. He was forced to second base, he never achieved second base, and he was declared out. How is this not a force play but instead a timing play?
