Quote:
Originally Posted by David Emerling
Under OBR 8.05 it says:
With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base. A "complete turn", to me, is a counter-clockwise turn toward 1st that continues on toward 2nd.
Can a pitcher, with only a runner at 1st, simply spin (counter-clockwise), without stopping, and throw the ball to 2nd - even if the runner on 1st is not advancing? There is no mention of the requirement for the runner to be advancing for this to be legal.
This just seems goofy.
I've never seen it done.
I'm clearly misunderstanding this. |
The pitcher can NOT throw to second if the runner is not advancing (or in FeED has not feinted an advance).
The comment to to address those who would (inocrrectly) call a balk on this move (when the runner is advancing) because F1's first move was to first and he didn't throw there.