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Is it just me Bob, or you just like busting my balls?
I simply stated an opinion as did the other two posters on this thread. I simply asked you where you got the ruling from, thinking you may have been referring to another rule or case other than the rule 9.1.1 whick I stated. I saw nothing where it stated on a hit ball, or homerun where "all (forced) runners must touch the advance base. " as you put it.
Also, you say:
"Further, you use the FED wording to argue the questioning I gave for the OBR wording (even though the same phrase is used in both)."
My question was how the phrase is used in both OBR and FED, but the rulings are different????
I was asking where you found the defining case that differenciated the NFHS RULE from OBR RULE.
But nevermind now, you've caused me to lose interrest!
PS: I commented on another thread named "two balls in the field" if you want to go critizize that too!
[Edited by thumpferee on May 19th, 2003 at 02:17 PM]
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