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Originally Posted by MD Longhorn
You are close if all those people I insist are wrong are instead right! (Yours is the crux of the argument I disagree with).
I'll ask just one follow up question to you specifically... if the ball becomes fair the instant it hits the BR (making BR - was BR out BEFORE the ball hit him?) IOW - he wasn't "retired" until the exact same instant that the (supposed) interference occurred.
However, I will also say this is NOT the crux of the argument, to me.
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BR is not out until it's an IFF which requires the ball to be fair. Since the question of fair/foul cannot be answered until, in this case, it hits the BR, then yes, it is instantaneously both of the following: a fair ball and an IFF.
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And, regardless what happens AFTER the ball ricochets off, I am going to have a hard time seeing an interference at the time of contact when your OP states "no one makes an attempt to field it".
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Steve, this is a valid point IMO. In fact, as stated in the OP this alleged interference may have actually been of great assistance to the defense.
Mike, what are you saying would the proper ruling IYO?