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I see this side of the argument. My main question is because of the signal (although no whistle) did they fail to award a merited FT because the delayed violation would make the original FT null and void?
We hear coaches all the time when officials "tweets" signals a violation..but another official (on the same play) signals a fist (but does not "tweet" the whistle) "hey hey your partner has a foul or your partner has something different."
I talked with another official in my local association who said this official was right because it was a correctable error that was enforced properly and that the official did was right for the game.
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