[OKREF]

Originally Posted by Scrapper1

So, it seems like you're differentiating between pivoting on a pivot foot and rotating at the waist. And based on that differentiation, it sounds like you're saying that a player who pivots on a pivot foot does not have a moving elbow; in which case, if that elbow makes contact above the shoulders of an opponent, you could have nothing or a common foul.

Is that right so far?

If so, it then also sounds like you're saying if that same player rotates at the waist (instead of pivoting on the pivot foot), without the elbows moving faster than the torso, and the elbow makes contact above the shoulders of an opponent, that's an intentional foul.

Is that right?

This is how I see it.