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Old Tue May 06, 2003, 05:16am
thumpferee thumpferee is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by SC Ump
In OBR:

6.08
The batter becomes a runner and is entitled to first base without liability to be put out (provided he advances to and touches first base) when...

(c) The catcher or any fielder interferes with him. If a play follows the interference, the manager of the offense may advise the plate umpire that he elects to decline the interference penalty and accept the play. Such election shall be made immediately at the end of the play. However, if the batter reaches first base on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batsman, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, the play proceeds without reference to the interference. If catcher's interference is called with a play in progress the umpire will allow the play to continue because the manager may elect to take the play. If the batter runner missed first base, or a runner misses his next base, he shall be considered as having reached the base, as stated in Note of Rule 7.04

7.04
Each runner, other than the batter, may without liability to be put out, advance one base when...

(d) While he is attempting to steal a base, the batter is interfered with by the catcher or any other fielder. NOTE: When a runner is entitled to a base without liability to be put out, while the ball is in play, or under any rule in which the ball is in play after the runner reaches the base to which he is entitled, and the runner fails to touch the base to which he is entitled before attempting to advance to the next base, the runner shall forfeit his exemption from liability to be put out, and he may be put out by tagging the base or by tagging the runner before he returns to the missed base.
Ok, I'm confused.

Let me give an example to help me.

R1 on second, stealing on the pitch. B2 swings and hits catchers mitt. (1)catcher picks up ball and attempts to throw out R1 and is called (a)out. (b) safe.

(2) Same situation: No throw is made.

In 1-a, R1 would go back to second, and B2 would get 1st?

In 1 b, Coach may elect to keep R1 on third and B2 still bats with a no pitch? Or,elect to put R1 back to 2nd and B2 to 1st? Or, would R1 stay at third since he was stealing, and B2 still goes to 1st?

Confused yet?

And in 2, there is no play, so where are players put on bases?
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