[rekent]

I have seen this call quite a few times in the past, so can someone more experienced please explain the rationale behind it? I saw a play that reminded me of it in the first half of the Okla. St. vs. Va. Tech game today, it was not exactly as the one below, but the one below is where my question comes from. I will do my best to explain it well:

A1 has both feet on the ground preparing to shoot a 3-pointer, B1 is running to contest the shot in an established path perpendicular to A1 that will run him across A1's face. A1 rises to shoot and kicks his leg forward into the path of B1, B1 hits the leg with no other contact and is called for the defensive foul.

Why is that not an offensive foul or a no-call?

Added by APG for those reading the thread from the beginning: