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Old Fri Nov 09, 2012, 05:56pm
youngump youngump is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Andy View Post
I have always been instructed that passing means being physically in front of the preceeding runner with your entire body. The play posted does not meet that criteria. I think I just have two runs scoring.
I think this kind of reasoning leads to a serious problem in the deep recesses of what could happen. And I think logically that a runner can be considered to have passed another runner without fully passing them if home plate is involved, but perhaps something in the book explicitly forecloses that though it would solve a lot of potential problems.

Here's a a slightly weirder take on the problem. Let's say the bases are loaded. R1 holds up thinking the ball will be caught in shallow right (beyond the ordinary effort of the infielders). R2 reads it as dropping and is at third when the ball falls. Both run home. The catcher takes the throw with her foot on the plate just after R2 scores and just before R1 reaches the plate. Does R2 scoring remove the force?

And here's a very very TW crazy take. Ball is hit to very very deep part of the field and caught by a player who falls doing it and makes a half hearted toss that doesn't get to the second baseman giving the runners plenty of time for shenanigans. R1 is off third without realizing she needs to tag but about halfway home gets yelled at and starts going back. R2 from 2nd having legally tagged has already rounded third though so R3 turns around to head toward home. For whatever strange reason, R2 slides between R3's legs and scores without passing R2. R2 then realizes R3 needs to tag
in a) R3 runs off to the dugout
in b) R3 retreats to second.

In either case, you've had a runner score while a lead runner remains on base. Is that an okay outcome?
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