[zm1283]

Originally Posted by Manny A

His foot wasn't on the rubber, I agree with you there.

But when a pitcher executes a jab-step (at least with my understanding of what the jab-step entails), by authoritative interpretation it is considered a move while in-contact with the rubber, even though the pivot foot does disengage prior to the throw. A throw into DBT after a jab-step is a one-base award, and a failure to throw to first after executing a jab-step move is considered a balk under 8.05(b).

This pitcher's move to first looked exactly like a jab-step to me. The only difference was that he first faked a throw to third. I'm just trying to understand why a feint to first on a jab-step is a balk, but a feint to first that looks exactly like a jab-step is not a balk if there's an intermediate fake to third.

Because it's not possible to jab step after you've feinted to another base. It's not a jab step anymore.