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Old Tue Sep 25, 2012, 01:27am
JRutledge JRutledge is offline
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Join Date: Jun 2000
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Quote:
Originally Posted by KMBReferee View Post
But did B (Jennings) actually have control though? Jennings had two hands on the ball vs. A (Tate)'s 1 while airborne. Can you clearly say that Jennings had control over Tate from the initial contact of the ball?

Isn't this the exact reason why we have a dual possession rule in football? Because there is really no way to truly know who had clear control?
In his example the ball is given to A, not to B in the first play which mirrors the example tonight. I am not sure he realizes what example he quoted.

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