[Dakota]

Originally Posted by Manny A

Poor wording, I suppose.

But I have no problem with the intent of that wording. It basically means that if the umpires judge the ball was just about to enter fair territory when the offensive player touches it with clear intent to keep it foul, it's a violation. I seriously doubt they meant it to cover batted balls that have even the remotest chance of changing directions and eventually ending up fair.

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Correct. Seems to me that if the runner (or BR) intentionally stops the ball, he's doing it for a reason. I can't imagine a runner intentionally stopping a foul ball that was not already heading toward fair territory. Why would he/she do that?

There's that old bug-a-boo "intent" again!