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Old Sat Apr 12, 2003, 08:39am
CecilOne CecilOne is offline
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It's not so much a question of "movement and intent" not being in the rule as it is what factors we use to judge where the runner would have been without the obstruction.
I agree it's pretty simple, but we tend to get overly analytical about certain rules. Without criticizing or insulting anyone on this forum, do I dare say those rules are the ones that umpires in general are inconsistent about or which certain umpires feel guilty about or especially those that have related myths. The inconsistency I refer to is from one umpire to another, not between the calls of an individual umpire.
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