View Single Post
  #6 (permalink)  
Old Sun Mar 11, 2012, 10:28pm
RKBUmp RKBUmp is offline
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jun 2008
Posts: 1,340
Quote:
Originally Posted by EsqUmp View Post
That's not the same as interfering with a fly ball. There is no reference to the batter being hit by the ball. If that were the case and the runner was on the base, the ball would have been fair...
Did you actually read the last 6 words of the rule? "or the fielder making a play" The rule cited covers 2 seperate incidences of possible interference by the runner, getting hit by a fair batted ball while standing on a base, or interfering with a player making a play. In both instances the runners act would have to be intentional in order to be guilty of interference.
Reply With Quote