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If you take the rule as it is written the following would be true: Team A scores a basket, B1 in-bounds the ball to B2 who is standing underneath Team As basket and holds the ball. A1 commits a foul on B2 or causes the ball to go out of bounds. The ensuing throw-in is on the base line and team B stills has the right to run it. That is how the rule is written
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Here's my 2 pennys...the above foul does not create a situation where you would have Team B able to "run" the baseline.
The only time Team B could run the baseline after a foul...is if the foul happened DURING THE THROW IN...not after, as your exapmle shows.
You seem to write quite eloquently, but your interpretation of the rule leaves a little to be desired...IMHO.
RD