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My buddy who asked me to start this thread has this reply. He sent it to me by email. What follows are his remarks, not mine.
The overall consensus that once the throw-in ends it apparently ends the rule of running the base line. What does the throw-in ending have to do with how the rule is written? It is obvious these people simply didnt read the rule.
The rule states A team retains the privilege to run the base line if the scoring team commits a violation or foul and the ensuing throw-in spot would be on the end line.
This rule is very clear. If there is a violation or foul and the next throw-in resulting from that violation or foul is still at the end line you retain the right to run it. This rule gives both time (the ensuing throw-in) and scope ( a violation or foul). It has absolutely nothing to do with the throw-in ending.
If you take the rule as it is written the following would be true: Team A scores a basket, B1 in-bounds the ball to B2 who is standing underneath Team As basket and holds the ball. A1 commits a foul on B2 or causes the ball to go out of bounds. The ensuing throw-in is on the base line and team B stills has the right to run it. That is how the rule is written.
If someone wants to take the rule out of the context of how it was written and interpret differently then this rule was very poorly written.
As we previously had discussed, causing the ball to go out of bounds is clearly a violation. In the section of definitions it defines violations as the ones listed in section 9-1 thru 9-13. 9-3 states a player should not cause the ball to go out of bounds and it then goes on to explain what the penalty is for this violation.
I find it interesting that officials as a whole have a certain degree of obstinance about them that they are certain they know the rules inside and out. Maybe that attitude is what it takes to be a good official.
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