Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
...so,you would have a personal foul,followed by an intentional or flagrant personal foul-both charged to the same player....
|
Perhaps I'm exposing my ignorance here...but, if I understand correctly, the first foul was not committed against a shooter (airborne or otherwise). So the ball became dead on the foul. So the second act, a potentially flagrant or malicious act, against an opponent during a dead ball, would be a technical foul, would it not?