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(What Nevadaref said)
Plus the conceptual "why"....
Image if the pass was, instead, caught/touched by B2 at that spot. Who's ball would/should it be? Would it make sense to consider it a violation on the thrower and give the ball to B? If it were that way, B would only need to make sure they had a foot OOB and touch the ball on a throwin in order to be awarded the ball rather than actually intercepting/stealing it. Of course, it would only occur on a throwin near the sideline/endline but it could occur.
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