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Well, for practical purposes yes but for sheer logic no. I reread Downtown's post and his post allows for my situation to be called interference. Now I may have missed something earlier in his posts but if the umpire rules that the first baseman's opportunity to receive the throw was not violated then you do not have interference even though the runner was hit with the ball 3-4 steps from first base.
I do not think you can rule on the opportunity to receive a throw until you see the path of the throw and of course you gotta throw the ball. I think we can agree on that.
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