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Old Mon Sep 12, 2011, 02:17pm
Larry1953 Larry1953 is offline
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Join Date: Jun 2011
Posts: 340
Quote:
Originally Posted by umpjong View Post
Larry,
After re reading my posts and the rules, I see where I got myself caught up on the scenario being the case of it just not happening in modern day. Technically you are right and I was wrong in that yes if a forced runner R2 or R1 has not advanced to their base prior to a defensive player touching the runner or base the run would not count. My apologies on this one. Regardless of what I was getting myself caught up on you were right in this interpretation.
Jon
Jon, thanks! I certainly agree with you that there is no basis to allow a protest for the actual OP. You were quite correct: rule 4.09(b) is very clear on that.

Larry
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