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Old Sun Sep 11, 2011, 08:44pm
Larry1953 Larry1953 is offline
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Join Date: Jun 2011
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rich Ives View Post
If the game is over (as the rule says) when the BR touches 1B and R3 touches home, how can you then force out a runner?
Rich, 4.09(b) says the game is not over UNTIL (not "when"). There is nothing in that wording that takes off the force. Say B/R hits a slow grounder to third and beats the throw to first. Meanwhile, R1 pulls a hamstring on his way to second and falls down incapacitated. He can still be forced at second for the third out to preserve the tie.

Why would 4.09(a) not ALWAYS apply?
(a) One run shall be scored each time a runner legally advances to and touches first, second, third and home base before three men are put out to end the inning. EXCEPTION: A run is not scored if the runner advances to home base during a play in which the third out is made (1) by the batter-runner before he touches first base; (2) by any runner being forced out; or (3) by a preceding runner who is declared out because he failed to touch one of the bases.

Last edited by Larry1953; Sun Sep 11, 2011 at 08:48pm.
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