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Old Tue Aug 09, 2011, 10:40am
JugglingReferee JugglingReferee is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mbyron View Post
I agree, but I read his post as a rejection of the idea that this might be a flagrant foul. My impression is that most players know that grabbing the opponent and "not playing the ball" is an intentional foul, even if they don't know the exact rules language.
I guess. But the only post that I saw mentioned a flagrant is an F-1 in a non-existant game. So why the need to convince us that it's not a flagrant? We already all pretty much agree that it isn't a flagrant foul.
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