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Your asking for a clear answer disqualifies most of us from even attempting this, but I'll try.
You asked is this a violation? Maybe. You asked if this is a no call? Yes
How about those for clear, concise, definitive answers?
You really don't provide enough info for me to know if it is technically a violation. You told me that one foot is in the front court but where is the other foot? Is it in the back court or in the air? If it's in the air, did it come down in the backcourt after the player gained control of the ball. If so, then we,technically,have a violation because:
1)A2's catch initiated team control.
2)The ball had gained frontcourt status because A2's foot was in the frontcourt.
3)The ball was last touched in frontcourt by A2 and
4)The ball was first touched in backcourt by A2 when her foot touched in backcourt.
There is an exception to this rule for throw-ins but this only applies when both feet are off of the floor when the player catches the ball.
Nevertheless, this would be a bang bang play that I would
no call and sell it as both feet being off of the floor when she caught it, if I had to sell it.
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