[TussAgee11]

The way I read the OP, it was not INT because while I don't need intent to call INT on a retired / scored runner, I don't believe it fits the requirement for impeding or hindering a fielder's play. It seems to me the ball had already passed the catcher and was headed to the screen. It is possible that F1 was back there ready to make a play on it, but you'd really have to be there.

In the end, the questions that needs to be answered is "Did the runner (scored runner, or even OD hitter) hinder, impede, or confuse a fielder who was making a play on the ball?" Being hit by a thrown ball, even unintentionally, can most certainly be considered "hindering." But DID it hinder is another question, one you have to be there to judge. It may have even made it easier for the defense to retrieve!

If the answer to Q1 is yes, then "Did that fielder have a potential play on another runner?". If yes, nail it.

I think the most likely INT play is a thrown ball that gets through the catcher and rolls into the area where already scored runners and the on-deck hitter are. You could have them INT with either F1 or F2. In which case you are probably going to bang out whoever is trying to advance at that time, and if given the choice, get whoever is advancing home cause that was the likely play.