Thread: What a mess!
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Old Sat Jan 25, 2003, 12:55pm
Bfair Bfair is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by PeteBooth
Since the ball is all the way to the FENCE and B1 was OBSTRUCTED rounding first, IMO, it's a good bet that absent R2, B1 would have made third base easily which is what was judged originally.
[/B]
You should award bases on your judgment of what bases the runner would have acquired absent of the obstruction---not absent of a preceding runner (as you seem to think). The preceding runner is still part of the game and must be considered within the equation. R2 cannot merely disappear. The BR cannot occupy the same base that a preceding runner occupies. Therefore, Pete, it's not the obstruction of BR that keeps BR from occupying that base, it's the fact that R2 occupies it!!!

By awarding the BR a base you are not required to award him when that base is occupied by his teammate would be awarding him a base he could not have acquired absent of the obstruction.
Can you understand that simple fact, Pete?

Pete, while you are required under Fed rule to award at least one base to an obstructed runner, you must advance any preceding runner that is occupying that base. Other than for reasons of the mandatory award, there is no reason in baseball to advance a preceding runner who could not have advanced on his own during the play.
Please describe for me any situation where you feel that would be justified.........
Quote:
Originally posted by PeteBooth
The only mistake made by B1 on this play is that he passed his teammate and IMO it's more of a mistake on the part of R2 then B1, SINCE r2 with the ball all the way to the fence could have "walked" home.

IMO you need to read the thread more closely and then comment.

Pete Booth
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Pete, you apparently STILL don't understand the game of baseball.
We don't weigh which mistake is worse than the other.

I don't care if there was no fence and if the ball rolled 5 miles before F7 retrieved it and threw it toward home plate.........
The BR, who was the obstructed runner, cannot pass a preceding runner nor may he occupy the same base as a preceding runner---obstruction or not. That means it doesn't matter if the BR had enough time that he could have scored, gone home to have a barbecue, taped the reruns of America Bandstand, and returned to the field before F7 got the ball to 3B. If R2 occupies 3B then the BR couldn't legally advance to 3B---regardless of how much time he had. The ball going to the fence, Pete, meant absolutely nothing if the BR is held up by a preceding runner.


Freix

***Added question for you, Pete...........

In the play presented where you felt BR had enough time to get to 3B because the ball "skipped to the fence".......
if R2 stops at 3B and BR continues to 3B and they both occupy the base, who is out when tagged? After calling an out, do you then "award" 3B to BR and advance R2 to home?
What do you do, Pete, and why???

[Edited by Bfair on Jan 25th, 2003 at 12:34 PM]
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